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E22-181考试是EMC厂商最热门的科目，其考试的全称为：emc legato emailxtender administrator exam。在此我们收集了不同题库供应商的真题集 包含 : examsoon E22-181培训资料 ,Testinside E22-181考题讲解, Pass4sure E22-181题库 , Testking E22-181考试指南, exam4sure 真题材料.只要仔细阅读以下的E22-181题库demo的问题和答案, 相信你就会知道这个题库的质量了。

E22-181题库由多位IT认证的专家亲自整理的考试全真试题材料，为了让大家花更少的时间来完成EMC E22-181考试. examsoon考题大师E22-181试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用本站的考试题库参加E22-181考试，我们保证您一次轻松通过考试；

E22-181题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E22-181
Title : EMC Legato Emailxtender Administrator Exam

1. Comet Investments is using an evaluation version of EmailXtender Archive Edition. Comet wants users to be able to archive their own messages using the user-directed archiving feature.
What should the EmailXtender administrator do first?
A. Buy a license for Archive Edition
B. Create a user-directed folder structure
C. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition, evaluation version
D. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition, licensed version
Answer: D

2. Where is information about the EmailXtender supported mail server versions located?
A. Administrator’s Guide
B. Installation Manual
C. Messaging Current Product Compatibility Guide
D. Online Help
Answer: C

3. A customer wants to use EMC Centera to archive messages from EmailXtender.
Which application is configured with EmailXtender to perform this operation?
A. Audit Utility
B. DiskXtender
C. EmailXtract
Answer: B

4. What is the purpose of a journaling mailbox in an EmailXtender environment?
A. Queue messages for indexing
B. Store messages temporarily
C. Store pointers to shortcuts
D. Transfer messages to EmailXtract
Answer: B

5. Company XYZ is planning to buy EmailXtender Archive Edition. Its criteria is to archive all messages sent outside the company domain and exclude everything else.
What does Company XYZ need to do?
A. Configure an exclusion rule for all internal mail
B. Configure an inclusion rule for all mail sent outside the company
C. Configure an inclusion rule for all mail sent outside the company and an exclusion rule for all internal mail
D. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition
Answer: D

6. For what does EmailXtender use its SQL database?
A. Duplicate detection
B. EmailXtender configuration
C. Full-text indexing
D. User identities
Answer: A

7. What does the archive process do?
A. Copies all incoming or outgoing mail to a mailbox
B. Moves copied mail from the mail server to a storage location on the EmailXtender server
C. Organizes messages by content
D. Replaces messages on a mail server with pointers to the message in EmailXtender
Answer: B

8. What is the minimum amount of information necessary to calculate the amount of space used to collect and index email for a given timeframe?
A. Number of messages per user and number of working days
B. Number of messages per user, percentages of messages with attachments, and average attachment size
C. Number of users, average message size, number of messages per user per day, and number of working days
D. Number of users, size of mailbox, and average message size
Answer: C

9. What is a requirement for EmailXtender installation?
A. Adobe Acrobat Reader
B. EmailXtender license
C. EMC DiskXtender
D. Service account member of domain admin
Answer: D

10. Which function is performed by EmailXtender Archive Edition?
A. Instant message capturing
B. Realtime archiving
C. Scheduled archiving
D. Spam email elimination
Answer: C

11. Which EmailXtender component can be leveraged to perform archival of historic email messages from restored backup tapes in response to a legal discovery request?
A. EmailXtract
B. HealthCheck
C. Search Plug-in
Answer: A

12. Which group membership is required for the EmailXtender service account?
A. Domain admins
B. Enterprise administrator
C. Local system administrator
D. Supervisor
Answer: A

13. Which EmailXtender information is stored in the Windows registry?
A. Audit trail information
B. Polling rights
C. Rule refresh frequency
Answer: C

14. Which regulatory objective does EmailXtender address?
A. Blocking (quarantining) of email if it contains inappropriate content
B. Ensuring privacy (encryption) of email as it moves across a public infrastructure (Internet)
C. Executing a discovery request against archived email records
D. Randomly flagging messages for review
Answer: C

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2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权，我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。
3.如果你使用 Examsoon 模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！
4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前，请检测联接，可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性.

E20-611考试是EMC厂商最热门的科目，其考试的全称为：CLARiiON Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist。在此我们收集了不同题库供应商的真题集 包含 : examsoon E20-611培训资料 ,Testinside E20-611考题讲解, Pass4sure E20-611题库 , Testking E20-611考试指南, exam4sure 真题材料.只要仔细阅读以下的E20-611题库demo的问题和答案, 相信你就会知道这个题库的质量了。

E20-611题库由多位IT认证的专家亲自整理的考试全真试题材料，为了让大家花更少的时间来完成EMC E20-611考试. examsoon考题大师E20-611试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用本站的考试题库参加E20-611考试，我们保证您一次轻松通过考试；

E20-611题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-611
Title : EMC CLARiiON Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist

1. Click the Exhibit button.
In the illustration, how should the I/O Annex correspond to the SPs from left to right?
A. SPA, SPA, SPB, SPB
B. SPA, SPB, SPA, SPB
C. SPB, SPA, SPB, SPA
D. SPB, SPB, SPA, SPA
Answer: D

2. Which CX4 model supports SATA-II drives as vault drives?
A. CX4-120
B. CX4-240
C. CX4-480
D. CX4-960
Answer: A

3. On a CLARiiON CX4-960 array what is the maximum number of drives supported on each back-end loop?
A. 120
B. 240
C. 480
D. 960
Answer: A

4. How many BE ports does a CX4-480 array have?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

5. Click the Exhibit button.
In which slot is the iSCSI module installed?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

6. How many fans are in a CX4-960 fan pack?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

7. How many GB of memory are installed in each CX4-960 SP?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Answer: B

8. Your customer has ordered a CX4-960 configured from the factory for only 480 drives. The customer now wants to upgrade to the 960-drive version of the CLARiiON.
What needs to happen to the CLARiiON to upgrade the CX4-960 to support the full amount of disks?
A. Need to install a software upgrade only as the I/O devices are already installed
B. Need to install the new DAE3Ps and disks only; no I/O modules or software required
C. Need to install the new I/O modules and a software upgrade to get the full supported disk amount
D. Need to install the new I/O modules only; the software is already installed for the upgrade
Answer: C

9. What is indicated in a CX4 if the Fault LED on an SP is blinking blue at a frequency of 1 Hz?
A. FLARE is ready for I/O.
B. POST is starting the OS.
C. The FLARE drivers are starting.
D. The SP is executing POST.
Answer: C

10. How many GB of memory are installed in each CX4-480 SP?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

11. How many power supplies/blower modules are needed to start mirrored write caching on a CLARiiON CX4-480?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

12. It is best practice to place the iSCSI I/O module in the I/O annex first on which CX4 model?
A. CX4-120
B. CX4-240
C. CX4-480
D. CX4-960
Answer: D

13. Which CX4 array model has a maximum number of one back-end Fibre Channel port per storage processor (SP)?
A. CX4-120
B. CX4-240
C. CX4-480
D. CX4-960
Answer: A

14. A customer has a DAE3P configured and running at 4 Gb/s back-end speed, and you install a 2 Gb/s-only drive in the enclosure.
What will the DAE3P do with the new drive?
A. It will add the drive at 2 Gb/s back-end speed with no issues and initialize it.
B. It will add the drive at 4 Gb/s back-end speed with no issues and initialize it.
C. It will change the back-end speed of the entire enclosure to match the 2 Gb/s drive.
D. It will not add the drive to the loop due to the incompatible drive speed.
Answer: D

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2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权，我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。
3.如果你使用 Examsoon 模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！
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E20-485考试是EMC厂商最热门的科目，其考试的全称为：Content Management Application Architecture Exam。在此我们收集了不同题库供应商的真题集 包含 : examsoon E20-485培训资料 ,Testinside E20-485考题讲解, Pass4sure E20-485题库 , Testking E20-485考试指南, exam4sure 真题材料.只要仔细阅读以下的E20-485题库demo的问题和答案, 相信你就会知道这个题库的质量了。

E20-485题库由多位IT认证的专家亲自整理的考试全真试题材料，为了让大家花更少的时间来完成EMC E20-485考试. examsoon考题大师E20-485试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用本站的考试题库参加E20-485考试，我们保证您一次轻松通过考试；

E20-485题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-485
Title : Content Management Application Architecture Exam

1. A company that develops highly-structured content via XML authoring has decided to use Documentum for its XML chunking capabilities. They are also looking to reduce the problems they have been experiencing with their existing model of authoring via a client side application and storing in a centralized store. They understand that some level of customization or specialized configuration is required.
Which action would use the least custom code in favor of configuration?
A. develop a set of forms using Forms Builder for users to author with a configured XML application for chunking
B. develop a set of extended WebPublisher components for users to author with a configured XML store for chunking
C. develop a set of extended Webtop components for users to author with a configured XML application for chunking
D. develop a set of extended Digital Asset Manager (DAM) components for users to author with a configured XML application for chunking
Answer: A

2. A customer has an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system with a series of web services built for integration with existing financial and other enterprise systems. They want to add Documentum as their Enterprise Content Management System. They prefer to minimize the number of necessary user interfaces and want to make it so users ultimately do not need a Documentum interface. You recommend a phased approach to integration with some initial user interface.
Which options and products meet the customer’s needs?
A. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and High Volume Server (HVS)
B. Phase 1 Content Server and High Volume Server (HVS) Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Classes/Business Objects Foundation and Business Process Services (BPS)
C. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and TaskSpace
D. Phase 1 Content Server and Business Process Services (BPS) Phase 2 TaskSpace and Process Builder (PB)
Answer: A

3. In addition to Content Server, which server products are typically used for Interactive Content Management Solutions?
A. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
B. Document Transformation Services (DTS), Records Manager (RM)
C. Media Transformation Services (MTS), Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)
D. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Site Caching Services (SCS)
Answer: D

4. You are building a solution to automate a Grants Management Process. Your workflow involves searching documents in an external non-Documentum Repository. You also need to generate a graphical report on auto activities.
Which EMC product combination achieves this?
A. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), TaskSpace
B. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor(BAM), Webtop
C. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
D. Workflow Manager, Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
Answer: C

5. You have integrated Documentum Repository with Microsoft Exchange Server. You have been asked to reduce storage costs by using content compression and de-duplication.
Which EMC solution meets these requirements?
A. Content Services for EMC Centera and Content Storage Service (CSS)
B. Content Storage Service (CSS) and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Documentum Client for Outlook (DCO) and Content Services for EMC Centera
D. High Volume Server and Archive Services for Email
Answer: A

6. A company has an existing website and web publishing system. They are expanding the authoring of content to non-web development staff and want to provide a simple interface where users can author content for both internal and external websites. They will need considerable flexibility in the development of the authoring interface for varied types of content but would prefer not to customize. The system should also be able to share that content with their existing web content management system.
Besides WebPublisher, which products include a user interface that can be configured and used for web-ready content authoring?
A. Webtop and Forms Builder (FB)
B. Webtop and Process Builder (PB)
C. TaskSpace and Workflow Manager
D. Digital Asset Manager (DAM) and Process Builder (PB)
Answer: A

7. In addition to Digital Asset Manager (DAM), which client products are part of the Interactive Content Management Solution?
A. Web Publisher (WP), File Share Services (FSS)
B. Webtop, File Share Services (FSS)
C. Webtop, TaskSpace
D. TaskSpace, File Share Services (FSS)
Answer: A

8. A customer has a remote office where there is limited IT support to maintain a Documentum installation. There is a Wide Area Network with low bandwidth and high latency between the primary and the remote sites.
Which solution best provides the user with the ability to read and write frequently used content at the remote location with minimal IT support?
A. Content Server with Distributed Storage at the remote location
B. Webtop with remote users added to the express_user role
C. Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS) at the remote location
D. File Share Services (FSS) at the remote location
Answer: C

9. An insurance company has standardized the client desktop on the Microsoft Office platform. The company designed a claim Documentum workflow on Microsoft Word documents. The workflow needs to be manually initiated by the user. Users would prefer a more integrated solution so that they do not need to launch multiple applications to start a workflow.
Which product meets these requirements?
A. Webtop
B. Application Connectors
C. Process Integrator
D. Web Development Kit (WDK) applications
Answer: B

10. Which EMC product is used to convert the text print stream into PDF format, extract the metadata, and ingest the content into Documentum Repository?
A. Document Transformation Services
B. Import Manager
C. Archive Services Reports (ASR)
D. Bulk Loader
Answer: C

11. In addition to Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM) and Records Manager (RM), which products contain a user interface and are part of the compliance and archiving products suite offered by Documentum?
A. only Retention Policy Services (RPS)
B. Retention Policy Services (RPS) and Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
C. Content Storage Services (CSS)
D. only Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
Answer: A

12. A company has a requirement to develop an application to manage a group of documents in a folder through a business process. As the folder progresses, the different document types in that folder change security based on status, their type, as well as the values of different attributes for those different types. They are deciding whether to use Documentum workflow or an external workflow system.
Which type of configuration or customization will support the functionality without committing to using Documentum versus a third-party workflow tool?
A. policy configuration only
B. policy configuration plus customization
C. process configuration only
D. process configuration plus customization
Answer: B

13. A customer wants to reduce storage cost. The company’s infrastructure architect advises that tiered storage be implemented and certain file sizes and formats be stored in the lowest tier. The company has enterprise licenses for all Documentum products and wants to know how the architect’s recommendation can be implemented in Documentum.
Which policies can be used for this implementation?
A. containment policies
B. assignment policies
C. retention policies
D. naming policies
Answer: B

14. A new Documentum customer without any experience with Content Management systems has decided to purchase Documentum for its out-of-the-box functionality. They have general requirements for their users to have web access to basic content storage, library services, full-text search, and workflow.
Besides Content Server and Index Server, at a minimum, which solution would meet this customer’s requirements?
A. Webtop only
B. Webtop and Process Suite
C. Process Suite only
D. TaskSpace and Process Suite
Answer: A

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2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权，我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。
3.如果你使用 Examsoon 模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！
4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前，请检测联接，可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性.

E22-280考试是EMC厂商最热门的科目，其考试的全称为：Avamar Backup and Data Deduplication Exam。在此我们收集了不同题库供应商的真题集 包含 : examsoon E22-280培训资料 ,Testinside E22-280考题讲解, Pass4sure E22-280题库 , Testking E22-280考试指南, exam4sure 真题材料.只要仔细阅读以下的E22-280题库demo的问题和答案, 相信你就会知道这个题库的质量了。

E22-280题库由多位IT认证的专家亲自整理的考试全真试题材料，为了让大家花更少的时间来完成EMC E22-280考试. examsoon考题大师E22-280试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用本站的考试题库参加E22-280考试，我们保证您一次轻松通过考试；

E22-280题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC e22-280
Title : Avamar Backup and Data Deduplication Exam

1. You are configuring the network on an Avamar Data Store and need to log in as user ‘root’. What is the default operating system root password?
A. 8RttoTriz
B. calvin
C. changeme
D. P3t3rPan
Answer: C

2. A customer has three MS SQL servers, each has four databases. How many datasets need to be created to back up all databases on all servers with EMC Avamar?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 12
Answer: A

3. What describes EMC Avamar MS SQL backups?
A. Differential backups only include the transaction logs.
B. Full backups include all objects, system tables and data.
C. Incremental backups include data that has changed since the last full backup.
D. Level 1 backups include all objects and data except for system tables.
Answer: B

4. A customer has an MS Exchange 2003 server with five Exchange databases in three storage groups. How many datasets will need to be defined to back up this Exchange environment?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

5. What are key features of EMC Avamar?
A. Disk-based archive RAID, RAIN, clustering and replication Global deduplication
B. Global deduplication RAID, RAIN, checkpoints and replication Disk storage
C. Global deduplication RAID, RAIN, checkpoints and replication Auto-archive of NAS
D. OS-specific deduplication RAID, RAIN, checkpoints and replication Full, Incremental and Differential file system backups
Answer: B

6. In an EMC Avamar backup, how are Microsoft Office 2007 files processed?
A. Chunking is not performed on the files.
B. Files are chunked first, then compressed and hashed.
C. Files are compressed first, then chunked and hashed.
D. Files are uncompressed first, then chunked and hashed.
Answer: D

7. What describes the characteristics of an NDMP backup capability through an EMC Avamar accelerator?
A. Initiates a Level-1 backup to the NAS device to retrieve only change files, then uses the file cache to deduplicate data.
B. Is an active member of the EMC Avamar system’s RAIN configuration that provides a backup and recovery solution for NAS devices.
C. Stores Level 0 data in order to deduplicate subsequent backups, uses the hash cache to deduplicate data sent to the server.
D. Initiates a Level-1 backup to the NAS device to retrieve only change files, then uses the hash cache to deduplicate data.
Answer: D

8. Click the Exhibit button.
Which EMC Avamar accelerator processes map to each item listed?
A. 1=Avagent, 2=NDMPCOPY, 3=ndmjob, 4=avtar
B. 1=Avagent, 2=avtar, 3=NDMPCOPY, 4=ndmjob
C. 1=Avagent, 2=avtar, 3=NDMPCOPY, 4=ndmjob
D. 1=Avagent, 2=ndmjob, 3=NDMPCOPY, 4=avtar
Answer: A

9. What are the components of the Avamar benchmark test?
A. Random write, garbage collect performance, and HFS check performance
B. Random write, random read, and network throughput
C. Sequential write, network throughput, and backup performance
D. Sequential write, sequential read, and random seek
Answer: D

10. What describes the characteristics of an EMC Avamar NDMP accelerator?
A. A component of the EMC Celerra NAS architecture that provides backup and restore capability to the EMC Avamar server
B. A specialized node that intercepts Level-1 deduplicated data from the NAS devices and passes it along to the Avamar server to provide full copies of the data
C. An active member of the EMC Avamar system’s RAIN configuration that provides a backup and recovery solution of NAS devices via the Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
D. A specialized node that acts as a proxy to provide a complete backup and recovery solution for NAS devices via the Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
Answer: D

11. What are the EMC Avamar typical daily change rates and performance throughputs for backing up databases?
A. 0.3% daily change rate and performance throughput of 100 GB/hr
B. 0.3% daily change rate and performance throughput of 10 GB/hr
C. 3% daily change rate and performance throughput of 100 GB/hr
D. 3% daily change rate and performance throughput of 10 GB/hr
Answer: C

12. Which EMC Avamar database backup option provides the fastest restore time?
A. Avamar streaming agent is installed on a proxy server and backs up directly from the database server through the network to EMC Avamar.
B. Avamar streaming agent is installed on the database server and backs up directly from the database server to EMC Avamar.
C. Database is first dumped to a local disk cache accessed directly by the Avamar server’s utility node where the Avamar agent is installed.
D. Database is dumped to a local disk cache accessed by an proxy where the Avamar agent is installed.
Answer: D

13. You are using the Avamar Administrator console to configure replication. What is the default Avamar root password?
A. 8RttoTriz
B. calvin
C. changeme
D. P3t3rPan
Answer: A

14. When backing up a MS Windows cluster using EMC Avamar, which resource needs to be excluded from the backup dataset?
A. C: drive
B. Quorom drive
C. Shared Resource
D. System32 Directory
Answer: B

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E20-475题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-475
Title : Content Management Systems Architecture Exam

1. Which is a supported path for upgrading a Content Server to D6?
A. 4i > 5.2.5 > 6
B. 5.2 > 5.2.5 > 6
C. 4i > 5.3 > 6
D. 5.2.5 > 5.3 > 6
Answer: D

2. What is the supported procedure for rolling back an upgrade of Documentum Content Server?
A. uninstall the current version, then reinstall the previous version
B. run the uninstaller for the current version and run the Data Dictionary Publish job
C. remove the directory under %DOCUMENTUM%/product for the current version, change server.ini file and dm_server_config, dm_docbase_config objects
D. restore the system from backup
Answer: D

3. In addition to core software upgrade considerations, which component of a Documentum system are most likely to require additional work?
A. software use cases
B. network topology
C. data center architecture
D. application customizations
Answer: D

4. Before upgrading the Content Server software, which job do you need to run to find sysobjects that point to non-existent content?
A. Content Warning
B. Consistency Checker
C. Dmclean
D. State of the Repository Report
Answer: B

5. Your client’s Content Servers are running on Sun/Oracle. These servers have numerous custom applications installed and have been ugpraded several times. Security and regulatory considerations preclude the copying of certain production data to non-production systems. The client’s configuration/change management processes and systems are incomplete or missing. You are tasked with drafting a plan to copy a repository from the production environment to a development environment in preparation for an upgrade.
Which process should you use to ensure that the new development environment is as similar to the production environment as possible?
A. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
copy a subset of the production content to the development storage
B. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
use DQL/DFC applications to delete potentially sensitive data from the development environment
C. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the development environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
D. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the development environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
create a dm_location object and filestore in the production system pointing to the development storage
use the Migrate Content method with an appropriate DQL qualifier to copy a non-restricted subset of the production content to the development filestores
remove the new dm_location and dm_filestore objects
Answer: D

6. What is the proper sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Document Transformation Services (DTS)?
A. uninstall Content Server
uninstall DTS
install Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
B. remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS upgrade Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
C. upgrade Content Server
remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
D. remove DTS Support from repository
upgrade Content Server
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
Answer: B

7. A client wants to upgrade their Documentum system from 5.3 SP3 to D6, but does not have the resources to upgrade and test web applications such as Webtop and Content Server components within a single downtime window. The client asks whether the upgrade can be phased, and if so which components should be upgraded first.
What is the correct response to the customer’s question?
A. Web applications must be upgraded before the Content Server.
B. Web applications must be upgraded after the Content Server is upgraded.
C. Web applications may be upgraded before or after the Content Server is upgraded.
D. Web applications do not need to be upgraded to make use of D6 features.
Answer: C

8. Which file(s) handle client configuration in D6?
A. dmcl.ini only
B. dfc.properties only
C. dmcl.ini and dfc.properties
D. dmclfull.ini only
Answer: B

9. What is required for using Business Object Framework 2 (BOF 2)?
A. a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers
B. a DBOR.properties and a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers and a global registry repository
C. a DBOR.properties file on all client machines and a global registry repository
D. a global registry repository and a dfc.properties file on all client machines
Answer: D

10. You are planning the upgrade of your Content Server software with Branch Office Caching Service (BOCS) on a remote site. The repository has approximately one million objects with 400 GB of content and 350 GB of full-text indexes. The BOCS cache has 20 GB of content.
What must be backed up before starting with the upgrade?
A. content, full-text index, and database
B. content, full-text index, and BOCS cache
C. full-text index, database, and BOCS cache
D. content, database, and BOCS cache
Answer: A

11. What is the correct sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Full-text Index Server?
A. uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents upgrade Content Server install Index Agents install Full-text Index Server
B. upgrade Content Server uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents install Index Agents install Full-text Index Server
C. delete Index Agents uninstall Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Full-text Index Server install Index Agents
D. delete Index Agents upgrade Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Index Agents
Answer: C

12. Which Application Server does D6 Content Server install for its internal use?
A. BEA Weblogic
B. Oracle AS
C. Apache Tomcat
D. IBM WebSphere
Answer: A

13. After an upgrade from a pre 5.3 version to 5.3 or 6, what can you do to remove the Verity Full-text Index components?
A. You delete the Verity Full-text Index components via Documentum Administrator after the upgrade.
B. The Content Server upgrade procedure deletes the Full-text. Just the empty/fulltext/Verity directory needs to be deleted in the DOCUMENTUM directory.
C. You do not delete the Verity Full-text Index. The new Fast Full-text installation needs the data for migration.
D. You delete the Documentum type dmi_tdk_index and the Full-text data in DOCUMENTUM/data directory.
Answer: B

14. Which file replaces the pre-D6 dmcl.ini?
A. dfc.properties
B. docbroker.ini
C. java.ini
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

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E20-465题库问题与答案赏析

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E20-501考试是EMC厂商最热门的科目，其考试的全称为：Commercial Storage & Info Infrastructure Exam for Tech Archs。在此我们收集了不同题库供应商的真题集 包含 : examsoon E20-501培训资料 ,Testinside E20-501考题讲解, Pass4sure E20-501题库 , Testking E20-501考试指南, exam4sure 真题材料.只要仔细阅读以下的E20-501题库demo的问题和答案, 相信你就会知道这个题库的质量了。

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E20-501题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-501
Title : Commercial Storage & Info Infrastructure Exam for Tech Archs

1. Which EMC backup and recovery solution features out-of-the box integration with Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)?
A. Avamar
B. DiskXtender
C. NetWorker
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

2. Which EMC backup and recovery solution replicates individual open and closed files, directories, and shares?
A. Avamar
B. DiskXtender
C. EMC Legato
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

3. Your customer has been using a CLARiiON CX4 array for several months and has asked you to help them design a data replication solution to their offsite facility approximately 250 km away. Their current network infrastructure can only provide them the equivalent of a T1 connection to the second facility, and they are asking for an RPO of no more than 20 minutes. They need to replicate roughly 1.75 TB of data with a change rate of less than 10%.
The solution must interoperate with Windows and Linux hosts, and maximize the limited bandwidth available to the customer today.
What replication solution would you suggest?
A. MirrorView/A
B. RecoverPoint CDP
C. RecoverPoint/SE CRR
D. SAN Copy
Answer: C

4. A corporation recently acquired a secondary data center that is approximately 1,600 km from their primary data center location. The storage environment at the primary site consists of the following:
Windows and UNIX servers
CLARiiON storage system
10 TB of data to be replicated
T3 data link and 15-minute RPO
You are proposing a CLARiiON storage system for the secondary data center. Which EMC replication solution should you propose?
A. MirrorView/A
B. MirrorView/S
C. RecoverPoint CRR
D. RecoverPoint/SE
Answer: C

5. Which protocol is used to connect the RecoverPoint Appliance and the storage array?
A. FCOE
B. Fibre
C. IP
D. iSCSI
Answer: B

6. Your customer is currently using RepliStor at their main data center. They would also like to use it to copy data from their remote offices to the main data center. Their main concern is data security when copying from the remote offices.
What are the security features of RepliStor that would meet the customer’s data security need?
A. Connection, Digital Signature, Encryption
B. Digital Signature, Encryption, Data Verification
C. Encryption, Compression, Redundancy
D. Encryption, PKI, Masking
Answer: A

7. A customer backs up their Windows servers to tape. They would like to complement these backups with the ability to provide disaster recovery protection in between backups, allowing only minutes of data loss as well as the ability to recover within minutes or hours.
Which solution fits this requirement?
A. Avamar
B. Backup Advisor
C. Replication Manager
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

8. XYZ Corporation has recently acquired a secondary data center that is approximately 800 km from its primary data center location. The storage environment at the primary site consists of the following:
Windows servers only
CLARiiON storage system
3 TB of data to be replicated
XYZ will purchase a CLARiiON system for the secondary data center, and they are looking for a scalable and cost-effective replication solution. Which EMC replication solution should you propose in this case?
A. MirrorView/A
B. MirrorView/S
C. RecoverPoint CRR
D. RecoverPoint/SE
Answer: D

9. A customer needs a disaster recovery solution for their Exchange environment. They currently have one site running Exchange within a SAN using CX3-80 storage, and the other smaller Exchange site using DAS. They want to implement a remote recovery solution for Exchange.
What solution will you recommend?
A. Replication Manager
B. RepliStor
C. SAN Copy
D. SnapView
Answer: B

10. Which RecoverPoint feature provides local synchronous replication between LUNs that reside in one or more arrays at the same site?
A. CDP
B. CRR
C. RPA
D. RPSD
Answer: A

11. How does SAN Copy, running on a CLARiiON system, identify other storage systems?
A. Domain ID
B. FCID
C. MAC address
D. World Wide Names
Answer: D

12. Which Replication Manager user role has the rights to restore replicas?
A. Database Administrator
B. Operator
C. Power Administrator
D. Power User
Answer: A

13. A customer wants to have automated failover during a Windows server outage, so that if the customer experiences a server outage, the recovery process will begin without human intervention.
Which EMC solution meets the customer requirement?
A. Celerra Replicator
B. NetWorker
C. RecoverPoint
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

14. You have a customer with a remote facility containing only three Windows servers. They recently had their backup tapes fail, and they would like to implement a solution that removes tape from the remote facility, minimizes bandwidth utilization, and keeps the data secure when traveling across the network. If possible, they would like to use existing Windows servers in their data center to replicate the data to.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. AutoStart
B. Avamar
C. Disk Library
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

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E22-315题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E22-315
Title : Disk Library and Backup to Disk Technologies

1. What does N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV) functionality provide to a DL4200?
A.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in a switched fabric environment
B.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
C.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in a switched fabric environment
D.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
Answer: C

2. Which type of connectivity is required from the backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.CIFS
B.Fibre Channel
C.Internet Protocol
D.NFS
Answer: B

3. An EMC NetWorker customer is using a file type device for backup-to-disk. What will happen if the file type device fills up?
A.Save is suspended and expired save sets on the volume are deleted
B.The device expands automatically and the save operation continues
C.The save operation is aborted and a new volume is selected for writing
D.The volume is marked full and save continues on a new volume
Answer: D

4. Which type of connectivity is required from a backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.Copper Network
B.Ethernet NAS
C.Fibre Channel
D.IP NAS
Answer: C

5. A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk Library at their disaster recovery site with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup application. A small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it will eventually expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery site?
A.Active Tape Migrator
B.Compression
C.Remote Copy
D.Tape Capacity-on-Demand
Answer: C

6. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has a DL4200 connected to two switches in the same fabric, as shown in the exhibit. Windows Backup Server X is zoned to port 1 on Engine A and Windows Backup Server Y is zoned to port 7 on Engine B. Active Engine Failover has been configured and is active.
Both backup servers are performing backups at the same time to their respective engines. Engine A has a failure and all virtual services fail over to Engine B.
The backup administrator has verified that failover has occurred as expected but Backup X is unable to see its virtual resources through the surviving engine even after rescanning the SCSI bus.
What is the problem?
A.Engine to switch cabling is incorrect
B.Engines are connected to different switches
C.Lack of PowerPath configuration on the backup servers
D.Missing EMC NetWorker DL-Failover license
Answer: A

7. A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library in the primary data center and one EMC Disk Library in the remote data center. What is the recommended feature to use to provide backup application catalog consistency between two data centers?
A.ACSLS
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Remote copy
Answer: C

8. What is the recommended configuration for a Celerra ATA disk-array enclosure that will be used as a backup-to-disk target?
A.RAID 3 4+1
B.RAID 3 7+1
C.RAID 5 4+1
D.RAID 5 7+1
Answer: C

9. Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Portability, investment protection, and TCO/ROI
C.Recovery speed, ease of use, and company reputation
D.Reliability, ease of use, and portability
Answer: A

10. What should be used to configure and manage the EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC ControlCenter for EMC Disk Library
B.EMC Disk Library Console software
C.EMC Disk Library Navisphere software
D.Management is integrated with the backup application
Answer: B

11. Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Investment protection, space issues, and portability
C.Portability, recovery speed, and ease of use
D.TCO/ROI, company reputation, and investment protection
Answer: A

12. What are the major components of an EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC disk drives, EMC Disk Library solutions, and EMC Disk Library services
B.EMC Disk Library appliance, EMC Disk Library, CLARiiON, and EMC Disk Library server
C.EMC Disk Library, EMC Disk Library client, and EMC Disk Library Console
D.EMC Disk Library, EMC Tape Library, and EMC Disk Library server
Answer: C

13. A customer with a Linux backup server plans to use a CLARiiON as the target for backups. What should be recommended for adequate I/O performance?
A.Set the read cache to the maximum limit
B.Set the storage element to 256 KB
C.Use a cache page size of 64 KB
D.Use fdisk to correct disk misalignment
Answer: D

14. A customer wants to implement a solution that would allow maximum availability for backups to complete. Which EMC Disk Library feature will provide maximum availability for their backup solution?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Backup Engine Failover
C.CLARiiON Engine Failover
D.Passive Engine Failover
Answer: A

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2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权，我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。
3.如果你使用 Examsoon 模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！
4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前，请检测联接，可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性.

e20-817考试是EMC厂商最热门的科目，其考试的全称为：Symmetrix Business Continuity Expert Exam for Storage Admins。在此我们收集了不同题库供应商的真题集 包含 : examsoon e20-817培训资料 ,Testinside e20-817考题讲解, Pass4sure e20-817题库 , Testking e20-817考试指南, exam4sure 真题材料.只要仔细阅读以下的e20-817题库demo的问题和答案, 相信你就会知道这个题库的质量了。

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e20-817题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-817
Title : Symmetrix Business Continuity Expert Exam for Storage Admins

1. Your customer requests an immediate point-in-time copy of their production Oracle database but cannot have the application brought down.
Which Enginuity feature allows the creation of restartable copies without quiescing the database?
A.Double Checksum
B.Enginuity Consistency Assist
C.Multi-Session Consistency
D.Symmetrix Differential Data Facility
Answer: B

2. A customer running SRDF/Star experienced a workload site failure. Production was switched from the workload site A to the synchronous target site B. Some time later, site A came back online. Before switching production back to site A, a symdev show command is executed to examine the R1 devices at site A.
What is the RDF configuration state that describes the relationship of the RDF devices between A and B?
A.Duplicate
B.Half
C.Normal
D.Partitioned
Answer: A

3. An application has a BC requirement of two independent full concurrent copies of production each night. One copy is mounted up for backup and recovery (BURA); the other is mounted up on a target server for data warehouse operations.
The current STD device configuration is a four-member mirrored meta. The current BCV device configuration is a four-member unprotected meta. The Symmetrix has global hot sparing enabled.
Which local EMC replication product(s) will enable the same number of replications as well as an additional SRDF device?
A.Symmetrix Optimizer
B.TimeFinder/Clone
C.TimeFinder/Snap
D.TimeFinder/SRDF
Answer: B

4. You are designing an SRDF service level plan for a customer. Their needs assessment shows the following:
Performance: Remote replication with potential impact, depending on distance and network latency for synchronous leg
Availability: Zero data exposure in the event of a source failure; no data loss on a single point of failure
Functionality: Continuous real-time mirroring on synchronous leg, Unlimited distances with no additional host impact for asynchronous leg, and the ability to synchronize between two remote sites
Economics: Requires sufficient bandwidth to support peak workload requirements
Which SRDF mode of operation should be chosen?
A.SRDF/A
B.SRDF/DM
C.SRDF/S
D.SRDF/Star
Answer: D

5. A customer has a 5 (five) node Microsoft cluster (MSCS) that spans across 2 (two) sites over a SRDF/A link. Site A, the primary site, contains 3 (three) nodes. Site B, the remote site, contains 2 (two) nodes. If the customer is using SRDF/CE with Majority Note Set (MNS), what happens to the nodes at Site A if communication is lost between the 2 (two) sites?
A.Nodes at Site A and Site B will go offline until communication resumes to Site B. The nodes at both sites need to be started manually, and the /ForceQuorum switch must be used.
B.Nodes at Site A will go offline until communication resumes to Site B. The nodes at Site A need to be started manually and the /ForceQuorum switch must be used.
C.Nodes at Site A will go offline until the nodes at Site A are manually started and the /ForceQuorum switch is used.
D.Nodes will remain online.
Answer: D

6. A company had their SRDF links go down while the R1BCV was in the process of synchronizing with the STDR2. A few minutes later the TimeFinder Integration Module for Exchange found inconsistencies in the information store of the local STDR1 device. The SRDF link comes back up.
What must the storage administrator do next?
A.Restore the STD from the STDR2.
B.Establish the R1BCV with the STDR2.
C.Keep the data from becoming unusable at the remote location.
D.Split the BRBCV from the STDR2.
Answer: A

7. A company has a five-node MSCS cluster running SRDF/CE with three nodes at the primary site and two nodes at the secondary site. The sites are 10 km apart. Due to capacity requirement changes, additional storage is needed.
What must be done to the cluster after the storage configuration changes?
A.No action is required with MSCS after storage provisioning. All storage configuration updates are propagated automatically via the COM server to the cluster nodes.
B.SRDF/CE cluster requires use of the COM server that must be restarted after all configuration changes. Once a change is made to a node configuration, it will send out a message to all other cluster node members after the service restarts.
C.The clusters must be rebooted, and a complete rescan of the system bus is required. Any current patches should be applied at this time.
D.Update the SRDF/CE database by issuing a Symmetrix SRDF/CE Discover through the console or manually setting symcli_db_file to srdfcesymapi.db followed by the symcfg discover command.
Answer: D

8. Click the Exhibit button.
During the design process of a Star implementation, a customer expresses the intention to switch production to one of the target sites as part of a disaster drill. After the production has been switched, the customer wishes to run Star protection at this site.
What should you advise?
A.It does not matter which site the customer switches production to, because Star protection cannot be enabled when the workload is running at a target site.
B.Servers and management hosts may be provided at either site, because Star protection can be enabled while the workload is running at either target site.
C.Servers and management hosts should be provided at site B, because Star protection can only be enabled if the workload is switched to the Synchronous target site.
D.Servers and management hosts should be provided at site C, because Star protection can only be enabled if the workload is switched to the Asynchronous target site.
Answer: C

9. Click the Exhibit button.
The diagram shows a planned Star configuration with two Symmetrix arrays at each site. The options file to be used for setting up Star is shown on the left.
RDF Groups 5 and 6 on arrays A1 and A2 connect to arrays B1 and B2.
RDF Groups 15 and 16 on arrays A1 and A2 connect to arrays C1 and C2.
RDF Groups 55 and 56 on arrays B1 and B2 connect to arrays C1 and C2.
Which RDF groups in the configuration should be assigned the name SiteB?
A.5 and 15
B.5 and 6
C.55 and 56
D.6 and 16
Answer: B

10. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has been using TF/SIM tsimsnap2 from the production server to back up the SQL Server database in the remote snap environment. There was a request to add more devices in the environment for a new database. The storage administrator added R1, R2, and the new VDEVs. A new DBA ran the tsimsnap2 command from the production server. The tsimsnap2 backup failed.
What needs to be done to complete the backup?
A.Synchronize the R1 and R2 devices, create the snap sessions, and rerun tsimsnap2.
B.Synchronize the R1 and R2 devices, and rerun tsimsnap2.
C.Activate the snap sessions, and rerun tsimsnap2.
D.Shut down the newly added database on the production server, and rerun tsimsnap2.
Answer: A

11. A customer has a mission-critical Microsoft Exchange implementation. They decide to deploy a remote DR site, using TF/EIM with SRDF. After a remote backup using Exbackup2003, the fileheader of the datafile is examined with eseutil, only to discover that the state is listed as Dirty Shutdown.
The customer states that no power outages occurred, and the SRDF link was up continuously. What could be causing the Dirty Shutdown flag?
A.The Dirty Shutdown flag indicates that the storapi daemon must have been shut down during the TF/EIM backup.
B.The Dirty Shutdown flag is caused by a physically consistent copy of a logically inconsistent Exchange database. This is normal for Exchange.
C.The Dirty Shutdown flag is caused by a physically inconsistent copy of a logically consistent Exchange database. This is not the normal behavior for Exchange.
D.The customer did not follow EMC best practice guidelines when designing their Enterprise Exchange layout. During the TF/EIM backup of Exchange, the Symmetrix reached its cache stress threshold, invoking the LRU algorithm to flush dirty pages to disk.
Answer: B

12. Your client has 10 large Microsoft Exchange servers. Currently, the backups to tape are not completing in the backup window. The database cannot be stopped, and the client has no capacity to increase the number of tape drives available.
How will you help solve the clients problem and provide the shortest possible backup window?
A.Add local BCVs to the Exchange Server disk and use TF/EIM to perform parallel backups.
B.Replicate the data to a disaster recovery site and use TF/SIM to perform tape backups.
C.Use TF/EIM to perform parallel backups directly to tape.
D.Use the EMC EDM product to call the Microsoft Exchange Online Backup API to back up the data to tape.
Answer: A

13. A company migrates their Windows 2003 Exchange servers. After this has been completed the systems administrator notes that performance has degraded on one of the Exchange servers. Analysis indicated that the system is performing two reads or writes for transactions 15% of the time.
What is the probable cause?
A.Block size is too small.
B.Read cache is turned off.
C.Sectors are misaligned.
D.Stripe size is too small.
Answer: C

14. Click on the Exhibit.
In an SRDF/Star implementation, the Connected state indicates which condition has occurred?
A.Both links are transmitting data, but one or both target sites are not fully synchronized with the workload site
B.The RDF relationship is not properly defined or there is no data flow between the sites.
C.The RDF relationship is properly defined, but the target site in question is not synchronized with the workload site and there is no consistency protection for the remote data.
D.The RDF relationship is properly defined, dependent write consistency of the data at the synchronous target site is assured through RDF-ECA and dependent write consistency at the asynchronous target is assured through MSC.
Answer: A

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e20-822考试是EMC厂商最热门的科目，其考试的全称为：CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators。在此我们收集了不同题库供应商的真题集 包含 : examsoon e20-822培训资料 ,Testinside e20-822考题讲解, Pass4sure e20-822题库 , Testking e20-822考试指南, exam4sure 真题材料.只要仔细阅读以下的e20-822题库demo的问题和答案, 相信你就会知道这个题库的质量了。

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e20-822题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-822
Title : CLARiiON Solutions Expert
Exam for Storage
Administrators

1. You are a storage administrator who has been tasked with sizing a database LUN for an Exchange 2007 mailbox server. You have been provided with the following information regarding basic capacity requirements:
450 users
200 MB mailbox size
2.5 MB mail sentday
Deleted items retained for 14 days
Deleted mailboxes retained for 30 days
You have also been provided with additional information regarding usage and maintenance processes:
Online maintenance takes 3 days to complete
Approximately five mailboxes are deleted during an average month
Content indexing will not be performed
Offline maintenance will be performed on a separate LUN
Which approximate LUN size will satisfy the listed requirements and still allow for 20% yearly growth?
A. 145 GB
B. 175 GB
C. 355 GB
D. 455 GB
Answer: B

2. A customer runs its critical Oracle environment through a Fibre Channel connection to a CX3-40c. In order to leverage the existing iSCSI connections, management decides to allocate a small amount of storage to support several Windows file servers. The customer needs to make certain that the Oracle SLA is not impacted by the non-critical Windows file servers. Which solution do you recommend?
A. Use Navisphere Quality of Service Manager to set limits on applications connected through iSCSI
B. Change the write aside cache value for Windows LUNs
C. Use Navisphere Service Taskbar to assign a higher SLA to the Oracle environment
D. CX3-40c will automatically assign higher priority to FC connections over iSCSI
Answer: A

3. A customer has two 50 GB MirrorView/S mirrored LUNs between two CX3-40s without a Write Intent Log. LUN1 is on SP A and LUN2 is on SP B. The two CX3-40s are connected via dedicated Fibre Channel links.
During the nightly maintenance window, the connection between SP A on the local array and SP A on the remote array is lost for 2 minutes. SP B is unaffected. When the customer logs in the next morning, they notice that LUN1 has a status of "attention" and is still fractured.
What caused this behavior?
A. Auto recovery is not possible on the CLARiiON
B. Missing Write Intent Log
C. Recovery policy is set to Manual
D. SP A set the affected front-end FC port administratively down
Answer: C

4. Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what happened between 05:21 A.M. and 06:56 A.M.?
A. CLARiiON back-end port was disconnected
B. CLARiiON front-end port was disconnected
C. MirrorView connection failed
D. SAN Copy connection failed
Answer: C

5. An AIX administrator requests an additional LUN for a development server. The server already has existing LUNs allocated from the CLARiiON array. The storage administrator creates the desired LUN size, masks it to the AIX host, and notifies the AIX administrator.
The AIX administrator runs cfgmgr to rescan new disks and notices the appropriate number of logical hdisks. However, the AIX administrator is unable to add the logical hdisks to the desired volume group.
What should be done to ensure the new LUN is read/write ready?
A. Execute powermt check from the host to create the emcpower#
B. Execute powermt config from the host to create the hdiskpower#
C. Execute powermt load from the host to create the emcpower#
D. Execute powermt restore from the host to create the disk slices
Answer: B

6. A customer has decided to implement a DR solution using CLARiiON storage. The target storage will be located 15 miles (24 km) from the source storage, which will be connected by Fibre Channel. There is no IP connectivity to the DR site for CLARiiON management. The site will require the use of a modem for management and monitoring. Which Event Monitor architecture should be used?
A. Centralized
B. Distributed
C. Mixed
D. Out-of-band
Answer: A

7. A customer has a 300 GB application LUN on which they would like to take a snapshot. The LUN will later be presented to a backup host for testing. The production LUN stays idle during the backup test. The testing process performed by the backup host is write intensive and will change all the data on the LUN during the test period. What is the minimum required Reserved LUN Pool size?
A. 220 GB
B. 420 GB
C. 620 GB
D. 820 GB
Answer: B

8. A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer’s site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the appropriate LUNs?
A. Create the appropriate storage groups
B. Disable Access Logix
C. Enable Access Logix
D. Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

9. A customer has set up a disaster recovery site 50 miles (81 km) away from their production site. The customer is using MirrorView/S over IP with the Write Intent Log enabled. In addition, they have a dedicated 45 Mb/s line with a latency of 2 ms. During the testing of the automated solution for disaster recovery, an administrator accidentally disables the Write Intent Log. What is the likely outcome of this error if a secondary image becomes fractured?
A. The fracture log will continue to maintain a log of changed blocks.
B. The fracture log will continue to persistently maintain a log of changed blocks.
C. The Write Intent Log will flush all records of changes.
D. The Write Intent Log will hold change records up to the point where it was disabled.
Answer: A

10. Click the Exhibit button.
The application using LUN 21 performs mainly 16 kB I/O operations. What is true of LUN 21?
A. Read performance would improve if read cache was increased from 250 MB to 500 MB
B. The application performs mainly read-modify-write-read operations
C. The read cache hit ratio is above 50%
D. The read I/O access pattern is largely random
Answer: D

11. A customer has recently upgraded their CLARiiON to FLARE R26. What software and configuration changes must the storage administrator ensure are in place to take advantage of the Asymmetric Active/Active features of the software?
A. PowerPath 5.0; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 2
B. PowerPath 5.0; disable ArrayCommPath, and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
C. PowerPath 5.1; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
D. PowerPath 5.1; disable Array CommPath, and change all host initiators to use Failover mode 3
Answer: C

12. A customer has an SQL database that initiates a clone for reporting nstance by accounting The clone is mounted read-only on an alternate host. The production LUN is RAID 1/0 and is 750 GB in size.
The SP event logs indicate that the clone LUN was trespassed during the synchronization. What is the status of the clone?
A. Peer SP continues the operation but the clone is corrupt
B. Peer SP fractures the clone and will need manual resynchronization
C. Peer SP halts the operation and the clone is now corrupted
D. Peer SP will continue the synchronization and the clone remains usable
Answer: D

13. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is complaining that SAN Copy sessions from CLARiiON-A to CLARiiON-B take substantially longer than from those to CLARiiON-C. All hosts have 4 Gb/s HBAs. All Cisco equipment is base hardware configurations.
Which component is causing the issue?
A. 9020s
B. 9216
C. HBAs
D. Hosts
Answer: B

14. A company has requested an independent consultant to develop and implement a security model for the CLARiiON storage platform. The company has limited access to the administrator role by removing rights for all accounts. However, they would like to keep the single administrator role account for top level management.
Management of user security should not be done by the administrator role user. In addition, the storage object administrators should not be able to change user security when using the Secure CLI. CLARiiON storage systems are located in a protected data center with limited physical access.
Which method should be employed to manage user security?
A. Create a Security Administrator role user and create a Manager role user account for storage object managers.
B. Create a Security Administrator role user, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account for storage object managers.
C. Implement security using PKI certificates, create a Security Administrator role user, and enable the CLI filter.
D. Implement security using PKI certificates, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account for storage object managers.
Answer: B

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E22-310考试是EMC厂商最热门的科目，其考试的全称为：DiskXtender for Windows Exam。在此我们收集了不同题库供应商的真题集 包含 : examsoon E22-310培训资料 ,Testinside E22-310考题讲解, Pass4sure E22-310题库 , Testking E22-310考试指南, exam4sure 真题材料.只要仔细阅读以下的E22-310题库demo的问题和答案, 相信你就会知道这个题库的质量了。

E22-310题库由多位IT认证的专家亲自整理的考试全真试题材料，为了让大家花更少的时间来完成EMC E22-310考试. examsoon考题大师E22-310试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用本站的考试题库参加E22-310考试，我们保证您一次轻松通过考试；

E22-310题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E22-310
Title : DiskXtender for Windows Exam

1. The DiskXtender license has expired and the Log file shows the following error message:
ERR 02/19 20:15:59 (0A50) [Dm_Agent.cpp, 1987] license has expired. File migration functionality is now disabled (16553).
Which statement is correct?
A.DiskXtender cannot be used for any type of operation.
B.It is still possible for a user to fetch migrated data.
C.It is still possible to use file migration if the target is EMC Centera.
D.No tape operation is possible.
Answer: B

2. Which environment could benefit most from an archive solution?
A.The files are deleted often.
B.The files are often accessed.
C.The files are often requested for recovery to a point in time.
D.The files are rarely modified.
Answer: D

3. What is a benefit of file system archiving?
A.Allows data to be restored to a point in time
B.Provides encryption protection
C.Provides for disaster recovery
D.Reduces backup times
Answer: D

4. A move rule had been configured with an age delay of 30 days from create time. It is 90 days past the create time and files are not moving and there are no files in the move list. What needs to be done to add the files to the move list?
A.Add media to the move group
B.Run a background scan
C.Run a metadata export
D.Set tracing on the move rule
Answer: B

5. Company ABC configured its data to be purged from the extended drive based on purge start and stop watermarks. If a file is qualified for purging, when will the file be purged from the extended drive?
A.Daily at 12 A.M.
B.During indexing
C.During the next background scan, even if the purge start watermark is not reached
D.When the purge start watermark is reached
Answer: D

6. Who is the primary target audience for the DiskXtender Search Module?
A.CIO
B.End users and security officers
C.End users
D.Security officers and IT managers
Answer: D

7. A customer notices migrations suddenly stopped. End users can still fetch files. They have not changed anything in their configuration. What could be the cause?
A.The customer has exceeded their license capacity.
B.The delete rule was not executed.
C.The index rule was not executed.
D.The purge rule was not executed.
Answer: A

8. Click the Exhibit button.
As displayed in the exhibit, a File System Manager configuration has two media groups, Centera and NAS. Two move rules are configured, one for each media group, and listed in the order displayed in the exhibit.
If the file Medical.GIF qualifies for a move, to which media will the file be migrated?
A.Both EMC Centera and NAS
B.EMC Centera media only
C.NAS media only
D.Neither
Answer: C

9. A company currently uses an archiving solution to manage its storage. In addition to archiving, what else should the company implement to prepare for disaster recovery?
A.Antivirus appliance
B.Backup software
C.Compression software
D.Encryption software
Answer: B

10. An IT administrator installed DiskXtender on a file server. After 30 days, files stop migrating. What is the cause?
A.DiskXtender needs to be restarted once a month.
B.Evaluation license has expired.
C.MediaStor has not been installed.
D.Search Module has not been installed.
Answer: B

11. A customer deployed DiskXtender for Windows in their environment and archives the data to NAS and EMC Centera. The files in their environment change once every 30 days.
How many versions of each file are managed by DiskXtender 100 days after deployment?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: A

12. Company ABC is planning its storage management using DiskXtender for Windows. It decided to use Retained NAS media for the secondary storage. Which retention settings are available?
A.Retention Class, Retention Period, and Infinite Retention
B.Retention Period
C.Retention Period and Infinite Retention
D.Retention Period and Retention Class
Answer: B

13. A customer using a non-extended attribute aware backup solution notices metadata exports are as large as the current extended drive used space. How can their metadata exports be optimized?
A.Set metadata export to include files from media folders only
B.Set metadata export to include files not in media folders
C.Schedule incremental metadata exports
D.Set metadata exports to export managed files only
Answer: D

14. Files that were deleted from the extended drive cannot be recovered from the DiskXtender Recycle Bin. The recycle bin is enabled, but its empty schedule is not configured. Why is the recycle bin empty?
A.The end user deleted the files and therefore they would not appear in the recycle bin.
B.The file has to be restored from a backup first.
C.The files have not been purged yet.
D.The files were deleted using a Privileged Delete.
Answer: D

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2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权，我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。
3.如果你使用 Examsoon 模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！
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e20-012考试是EMC厂商最热门的科目，其考试的全称为：Information Availability Design and Management Exam。在此我们收集了不同题库供应商的真题集 包含 : examsoon e20-012培训资料 ,Testinside e20-012考题讲解, Pass4sure e20-012题库 , Testking e20-012考试指南, exam4sure 真题材料.只要仔细阅读以下的e20-012题库demo的问题和答案, 相信你就会知道这个题库的质量了。

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e20-012题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-040
Title : EMC (r) Technology Foundations

1. What is a characteristic of a Content Address in Centera?
A.Administrator generated
B.File system based
C.Inherently stable
D.Location-dependent
Answer: C

2. In a CLARiiON array, which clone state would prevent a clone from being removed from a clone group?
A.Consistent
B.Fractured
C.Promoted
D.Synchronizing
Answer: D

3. After Rainfinity completes a directory or share move, clients can access data through a logical view without having to remap to the new destination. What is the underlying physical location called that maps this logical view?
A.Data Mobility
B.Global Namespace
C.Proxy Service
D.VLAN Change
Answer: B

4. PowerPath is connected to Storage Processor A and Storage Processor B. What action does PowerPath take when one path to Storage Processor A fails?
A.Redirects the I/O load across the remaining three paths to the array
B.Redirects the I/O through the two paths to Storage Processor B
C.Trespasses the LUN to Storage Processor B and uses the two paths through this Storage Processor
D.Uses the one remaining path through Storage Processor A
Answer: D

5. Which operation must an NFS client perform to access a Celerra advertised connection point?
A.Export
B.Map
C.Mount
D.Share
Answer: C

6. Which mechanism is used shorten the synchronization process after the link goes down between the primary and secondary mirrors?
A.Fracture log
B.Persistent Storage Manager
C.Primary arrays write cache
D.Reserved LUN pool
Answer: A

7. How many bi-directional mirror relationships are allowed per CLARiiON array?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
Answer: C

8. Which Symmetrix implements a unified director feature?
A.DMX1000
B.DMX2000
C.DMX-3
D.Symmetrix 8000
Answer: C

9. After a split operation has occurred, where is the information maintained for changes to the standard volume and BCV?
A.PSM LUN
B.track tables
C.vault
D.VDEV tables
Answer: B

10. When changes are made to a SnapView source LUN, where is the original data saved?
A.Cache memory
B.Clone Private LUN
C.PSM
D.Reserved LUN pool
Answer: D

11. Which SAN topology requires a direct link from any switch to every other switch in the fabric?
A.Compound core-edge
B.Full mesh
C.Partial mesh
D.Simple core-edge
Answer: B

12. In a NetWorker environment, which EMC Disk Library feature is used to export virtual tapes to physical tapes, while preventing blind spots?
A.Auto Archive
B.Embedded Storage Node
C.Embedded Media Server
D.Remote Copy
Answer: B

13. In a CLARiiON array, how is I/O handled when a LUN is expanding?
A.Continues to all component LUNs
B.Continues to base LUN only
C.Halted during expansion
D.Halted to the base LUN only
Answer: B

14. In a CLARiiON array, what is a characteristic of a metaLUN?
A.Can be only expanded one time
B.Can be used with SnapView and MirrorView
C.Cannot be added to a storage group
D.Supported on FC and CX series arrays
Answer: B

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E20-455题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-455
Title : Content Management Web Application Programming Exam

1. Which authentication scheme enables safe automatic login by passing credentials in the URL?
A. Docbase Login Authentication Scheme
B. User Principal Authentication Scheme
C. Uniform Resource Locator Authentication Scheme
D. Ticketed Authentication Scheme
Answer: D

2. Your employer asks you to rename the custom folder for your WDK application to "datasink."
Which XML entry represents the correct means of changing the custom folder’s name?
A. <custom>
<application>
<application-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<application-value>datasink</param-value>
</application>
…
B. <config>
<app-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value extends="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</app-param>
…
C. <web-inf>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value inherits="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
…
D. <web-app>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value>datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
…
Answer: D

3. You have written a custom authentication scheme and have correctly added the scheme to the system. You discover a problem in the code, which causes the scheme to always return null.
How does the null return value affect authentication in Webtop?
A. Any remaining schemes are skipped, and the login dialog is presented immediately.
B. Any remaining schemes are attempted, where the login dialog is usually the final authentication scheme.
C. The scheme throws a null pointer exception and prevents other schemes from authenticating.
D. The scheme automatically logs the user in as the repository administrator.
Answer: B

4. Which statement is true about the inheritance of elements between application layers?
A. Elements are inherited from lower layers if they are not overridden in the higher layers.
B. Elements are inherited from lower layers only if they are overridden in the higher layers.
C. Elements are inherited from all application layers regardless of application layer hierarchy.
D. Elements are only inherited from application layers that are at the same level in the application layer hierarchy.
Answer: A

5. You do not see the Presets option in Webtop. What could be a possible reason?
A. The Content Server does not have a license for Presets.
B. The BOF registry entry is incorrect in the dfc.properties file.
C. You are not a superuser.
D. You are not a system administrator.
Answer: B

6. Which statement is true about Trusted Authentication Scheme (Principal Support)?
A. It disables authentication through the Content Server.
B. It allows a superuser account to impersonate any given user.
C. The application server user name must not match a repository superuser.
D. A non-superuser account may be used to obtain login tickets.
Answer: B

7. You have implemented a custom authentication scheme, MyAuthenticationScheme.
To what must you add your scheme to ensure it is active?
A. in a properties file under the custom directory
B. in the app.xml under the custom directory
C. in a properties file under the WEB-INF/classes directory
D. in the web.xml under the WEB-INF directory
Answer: C

8. Where are the WDK servlets defined?
A. app.xml
B. wdk.xml
C. web.xml
D. server.xml
Answer: C

9. How do you automatically include a custom JavaScript file to be in all of your JSPs?
A. by adding a reference to the component configuration file
B. by specifying it as an application parameter in the app.xml
C. by appending a reference to the Javascript file WebformScripts.properties
D. by using the <@ page import="custom/myUtils.js"> directive
Answer: C

10. Which directories are representative of application layers in a default Webtop installation?
A. WEB-INF and webtop
B. WEB-INF and wdk
C. custom and webtop
D. custom and help
Answer: C

11. Which is true about Presets?
A. Presets are not used to provide security
B. Presets descend to subfolders
C. Presets applied to a folder do not apply to the files imported into the folder
D. Presets only comprise of a single rule each
Answer: A

12. The highest level application layer of a WDK application is defined in which file?
A. app.xml
B. conf.xml
C. wdk.xml
D. web.xml
Answer: D

13. If you want a new application layer in between the custom and webtop layers, then which file should you extend?
A. customapp.xml
B. webtopapp.xml
C. WEB-INFweb.xml
D. webtopmain_component.xml
Answer: B

14. For what can a qualifier be used?
A. to filter valid data to be displayed
B. to check permissions during authentication
C. to scope and filter actions and components
D. to check data against the data dictionary
Answer: C

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e20-080题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-080
Title : EMC Technology Foundations-NAS

1. What is a correct statement when describing NAS clients?
A. Access data irrespective of their physical locality
B. Access data via block level I/O only
C. Always support both NFS and CIFS protocols
D. Use raw data formatted storage volumes
Answer: A

2. Which statement about NDMP2D backup is correct?
A. Both Metadata and Data passes over the network infrastructure
B. Data passes over the network infrastructure
C. Metadata passes over the network infrastructure
D. No Metadata or Data passes over the network infrastructure
Answer: C

3. For what is Control Station required?
A. Data Mover failover
B. Data Mover backup
C. Network client connectivity
D. Storage Processor connectivity
Answer: A

4. Which statement about Asynchronous transmissions is correct?
A. A frame clock timing signal is required for correct transmission
B. Multiple characters are transmitted at a time
C. Single characters are transmitted at a time
D. The sender and receiver must negotiate the transmission speed
Answer: C

5. How many optical network ports are available on a NS500 DataMover?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. None
Answer: D

6. What do VLANs reduce?
A. The amount of network traffic
B. The number of network segments in the network infrastructure
C. The router traffic overhead in the network infrastructure
D. The security in a network infrastructure
Answer: C

7. What kind(s) of storage do the Integrated NAS models use?
A. Both CLARiiON and Symmetrix storage
B. CLARiiON storage only
C. CLARiiON, Symmetrix and third-party storage
D. Symmetrix storage only
Answer: B

8. Which statement about Celerra TimeFinder/FS Near Copy is correct?
A. Is a CLARiiON only solution
B. Is a Symmetrix only solution
C. Provides a pointer based view of the file system
D. Shares the same volume as the Production File System
Answer: B

9. What is a fundamental component of an iSCSI implementation?
A. Connectrix switch
B. Host with Fibre Channel HBAs
C. IP network infrastructure
D. Storage array with Fibre Channel ports
Answer: C

10. What is a type of network topology?
A. Bus
B. Core to edge
C. Fabric
D. Link
Answer: A

11. What does the OSI Data Link layer provide?
A. a reliable message stream to the user interface
B. address and routing for data
C. data encapsulation
D. the media specification
Answer: C

12. What business need does NAS address?
A. Application security
B. Firewall configuration
C. Heterogeneous client support
D. Print spooling
Answer: C

13. What is an operation of the OSI Application layer?
A. Presents data to the user interface
B. Provides a reliable message stream to the user interface
C. Provides a reliable messaging system to the user interface
D. Provides the interface to the user
Answer: D

14. What does SSH use?
A. a clear text message transmit
B. a less secure communications connection than Telnet
C. TCP port 22
D. TCP port 23
Answer: C

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1.Examsoon 模拟测试题具有最高的专业技术含量，只供具有相关专业知识的专家和学者学习和研究之用。
2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权，我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。
3.如果你使用 Examsoon 模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！
4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前，请检测联接，可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性.

E20-500考试是EMC厂商最热门的科目，其考试的全称为：EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Exam。在此我们收集了不同题库供应商的真题集 包含 : examsoon E20-500培训资料 ,Testinside E20-500考题讲解, Pass4sure E20-500题库 , Testking E20-500考试指南, exam4sure 真题材料.只要仔细阅读以下的E20-500题库demo的问题和答案, 相信你就会知道这个题库的质量了。

E20-500题库由多位IT认证的专家亲自整理的考试全真试题材料，为了让大家花更少的时间来完成EMC E20-500考试. examsoon考题大师E20-500试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用本站的考试题库参加E20-500考试，我们保证您一次轻松通过考试；

E20-500题库问题与答案赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-500
Title : EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Exam

1. For reporting purposes, which source provides data for the ETL process to populate the StorageScope repository?
A. EMC ControlCenter Repository
B. Host Agents
C. Master Agents
D. Store
Answer: A

2. A customer has a CX3-80 for Exchange and a critical OLTP database application. Over the last month, during monthly batch processing, users complain of slow response times. Which solution will you recommend to solve this issue?
A. Access Logix
B. Performance Manager
C. Navisphere Quality of Service Manager
D. StorageScope
Answer: C

3. What does Inter-Switch Link trunking do?
A. Allows ports on the same blade to be used for ISL
B. Enables ISL between switches to reach up to 200 km distances
C. Prohibits a port from becoming an E_Port for fabric security
D. Aggregates the bandwidth of multiple ISLs
Answer: D

4. A company has an existing DMX-3 2500 in Data Center 1 and a CX3-80 in Data Center 2. Both offices are production sites. There are two dedicated DS3 connections. The company needs to migrate a 300 GB UNIX database from Data Center 2 to Data Center 1. They are not concerned about how much time the replication will take. Which EMC solution should you discuss?
A. MirrorView/A
B. RecoverPoint/SE
C. RepliStor
D. SAN Copy
Answer: D

5. You are giving a presentation to a customer about EMC virtualization products. They specifically ask about file storage virtualization. Which EMC product enables file storage virtualization using industry-standard protocols and mechanisms in a heterogeneous environment?
A. Invista
B. Rainfinity
C. RecoverPoint
D. Vmware
Answer: B

6. An EMC ControlCenter customer is a United States Department of Defense contractor. The contractor needs to show that there is controlled user access to devices and to the modification of these devices. This will allow the contractor to provide proof of compliance and accountability. Which security feature of EMC ControlCenter should you discuss with the contractor to satisfy this requirement?
A. Data collection policy (DCP)
B. EMC Secure Remote Support (ESRS) Gateway
C. Role-based access control (RBAC)
D. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
Answer: C

7. When data is written to a SnapView source LUN, at what point are the data chunks saved to the Reserved LUN pool?
A. During synchronization
B. Every time data is changed on the source
C. Every time write cache is flushed
D. When source data is changed for the first time
Answer: D

8. Your customer wishes to deploy a new streaming media application using large multimedia files. These files will be used to provide training to employees. The customer would like to store the media files on its CLARiiON CX3 array.
The application performance in a proof of concept has not been acceptable, and the customer has narrowed the problem down to a disk. The customer deployed the application and data files on a single RAID 5 4+1 LUN. The application data has various I/O sizes, and the media file I/O size is 1024 Kb.
The customer is confident the application will perform adequately on the CLARiiON, but is unsure what changes should be made to the configuration. The customer also wants the best balance of performance and cost.
What would you recommend the customer change in its configuration to achieve the highest performance?
A. Place the media files and application files on separate RAID 1 groups.
B. Place the media files on a RAID 3 group and the application files on a RAID 5 group.
C. Place the media files and application files on separate RAID 5 4+1 groups.
D. Place the media files on a RAID 5 group and the application files on a RAID 3 group.
Answer: B

9. A customer implemented BCVs with mirrors for use with the most critical business volumes. The standard volumes were established with the BCVs at the start of the day, but later in the day the customer discovered data corruption. Which action would enable a restore from uncorrupted BCV volumes?
A. Differential Split
B. Instant Split
C. Protected Restore
D. Reverse Split
Answer: D

10. Which license is required if you wish to implement Inter-VSAN Routing (IVR)?
A. Enterprise License Package
B. SAN Extension
C. SANTap
D. Storage Service Enabler
Answer: A

11. After a Data Mover failover, how is the failback operation performed?
A. Automatically
B. Data Mover failover is not supported
C. Manually
D. Recovery is not needed until another failure occurs
Answer: C

12. You are proposing a NAS solution for your customer. The final solution includes:
Celerra NS40 integrated
Twenty six (26) 146 GB disk drives
One Celerra Enterprise license
One Celerra SnapSure license
Two EMC CAVA licenses
What hardware is the customer required to provide for the above licensed solution?
A. A modem for Celerra dial-home
B. A server for CLARalert email home
C. An ESRS gateway for secure notifications
D. Two servers for antivirus scanning
Answer: D

13. Your customer is experiencing write performance problems on a RAID 5 LUN used for backup-to-disk on its CX3 array. The LUN has been placed on ATA drives. The customer has determined that it would like the LUN on Fibre Channel drives instead. The customer has requested you provide the best option to alleviate this performance problem, keeping downtime to a minimum. What action would you recommend?
A. Create a new LUN on fibre drives and restore the data from tape to the new LUN.
B. Implement a newer array and use MirrorView to migrate the data.
C. Use Dynamic Virtual LUN functionality to move the LUN from ATA to fibre drives.
D. Use SnapView to make a clone of the LUN on fibre drives and assign the LUN to the appropriate storage group.
Answer: C

14. What are the primary goals of an optimization engagement?
A. Avoid future problems, reduce complexity, enable high availability
B. Fix existing problems, avoid future problems, reduce costs
C. Fix existing problems, improve utilization, increase efficiency
D. Reduce costs, reduce complexity, increase efficiency
Answer: D

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